5 ways to create a warm & inviting Dental clinic waiting room

The design of your waiting room is an essential element to your patients experience at your dental practice. This first impression can set the overall tone for their visit and future return.  As a Dental Practice owner you have the ability to create a warm and inviting space to help your patients feel at ease. What does your practice and it’s waiting room say about you?
A memorable waiting room and reception area are not solely reliant on your outstanding fitout. The ambiance you can create is also of high importance. Utilising space for a childrens’ entertainment area, allowing for patients and employees privacy, alongside creating a suitable atmosphere through the use of discrete music are just a few of the many vital ways you can communicate the characteristics of your practice. Enhance your patients experience by making these simple improvements.

1. Offer a friendly greeting to each customer as they enter your practice.

A verbal ‘hello’ is the simplest ways to make people feel welcome as they arrive. Also think about the type of music that’s playing in the background. Is it suited to your demographic? You want your music to be relaxing to patients and something they will enjoy before their treatment.

2. Keep your entryway clean and clutter-free.

Visible uncleanliness is a customer turn-off — it can suggest that you and your staff are disorganized and inattentive to detail. There should also be an obvious path to your reception desk.

3. Provide relevant lighting.

There are a lot of lighting options out there, and the light sources you choose to incorporate in your clinic largely depend on what kind of mood you’re after. Soft, bright light gives people a sense of calm. Low, warm light emits a “homey” quality and can add to the atmosphere and charm of your practice if you’re going for more of a family vibe. However, lighting that looks and feels artificial—think fluorescent bulbs—often comes off as harsh, cold, and industrial, and generally does not create an inviting atmosphere.

4. Incorporate memorable details.

Lots of reception areas have water coolers; set your business apart by offering something fun and different. Establish areas of visual interest—fresh flowers, a well-maintained fish aquarium, or a beautiful piece of art. If you provide reading material in your waiting area, consider the interests of your clientele and put out magazines and books to suit.

5. Use decor to add personality.

Think of d├ęcor as a means of expression for your clinic—a way to reinforce your brand identity. This definitely is an area where you can get creative, but it helps to have some kind of focused concept. Too many clashing elements will overwhelm the senses and can portray an air of chaos.

Take a look at few clinic designs>>> click here

If you are really benefited , Please share it with your friends on Facebook by clicking Fshare button. Follow us on facebook : http://www.facebook.com/rxdentistry



  1. Virus culture is done on
    a. embryonated egg 
    b. non embryonated egg
    c. sarboud's agar
    d. blood agar 
  2. Ester L.A is contraindicated in:
    a)cholinesterase difficiency
    b)cougalatiin disordrs
    c)diabetic nephropathy,
    d) hyperparathyroidism
  3. Premaxillary part supplied by
    • Nasopalatine
    • Glossopharyngeal,
    • greater palatine,
    • anterior pharyngeal
  4. precision depend on
    • sample size
    • null hypothesis
    • type of study
    • alternate hypothesis
  5. For admission pt in hospital priority wil b gvn to...
    • pt with airway obstructn..
    • pt with head injury ...
    • pt with circulatory shock..
    • pt wit # in leg
  6. while maintaining airway which nerve gets
    affected at angle of mandible ??
    • 7
    • 9
    • 10
    • ?
  7. Dentin bonding agent... Hydrophobic part
    • attaches to collagen
    • of dentine
    • hydroxyapetite of enamel
    • resin of composite
  8. Band n loop contraindicated in all xcept?
    A. Single tooth missing in post region
    b. Lower ant. Crowding
    c. Mod to severe space loss
    d. High caries succeptibility
  9. Care index –
    (a) ratio of missing teeth to healthy teeth
    (b) ratio of filled teeth to teeth present
    (c) no. Of filled teeth per person
    (d) ratio of denture users to non denture users
  10. Dmf index measures what?
    A. Quantitative index
    b. Qualitative index
    c. Normal
  11. Dmf index measures what?
    A. Cumulative caries experience
    b. Oral hygeine
  12. The pyramidal shaped interdental gingiva is...
    A. Non kiratenized
    B. Parakeratinized.....
    C. Has less blood supply
    D. In cementum
  13. Oclusal rest provide by all except?
    Horizontal stability
    Verticl stop
  14.  Not a type of maxillary rpd using base metal
    lingual U plate
    palatal strap
    palatal plate
  15.  Split lingual bar is not preferred in
    contemporary partial denture, major disadvantage
    is a.
    complex design
    b.entrapment of tissues
    c.inadequate retention
    d.inadequate stability
  16.  Graft for mandibular reconstruction-
    Ant iliac crest
    Post. Iliac crest
  17.  Condyle is displaced medialy after fracture due
    to which muscle
    Medial pterygoid
    Lateral pterygoid
  18.  A patient having 102 celcius temp n lateral
    incisor non restorable carious left cheek is soft n
    palpable- treatment wud be-
    Incision n drainage
    Heat and fluids
  19.  Patient taking steroid undergoing oral surgery is
    given prior medication of
    Adrenaline to prevent shock
  20.  Which of this cause sleep apnea
    Orbital fracture
    Mandibular ameloblastoma
    Tmj ankylosis
    Dentigerous cyst
  21.  Bilateral circumferential echymosis is seen in
    a. Blow out fracture
    b. Lefort 3
    c. Condylar fracture
    d. ?
  22.  In gillies approach where is the forcep inserted?
    A. Between temporalis muscle and bone
    b. Superficial fascia and temporais fascia
    c. Temporalis muscle and fascia
    d. Skin and superficial fascia
  23.  Laser used to break adhesions in tmj
    c.he ne
  24.  Latest first line management of trigeminal
    anticonvulsant drug
    radiofrequency ablation
    peripheral neurectomy
  25.  Direct method of wiring
  26.  Cald well luc approach operation area of
    elevation iss.....???
    A.middle meatus
    B.superior m,
    C.inferior m.
    D.bw middle and inferior meatus
  27.  Airway maintenence in major oral surgical
    A.Cuffed nasotracheal
    b.Uncuffed nasotracheal
    c.Laryngeal mask airway
    d.Laryngeal mask airway
  28.  nasal antrostomy done thru-
    Inferior meatus,
    Middle meatus,
    Superior meatus
    Inferior & middle meatus
  29.  Distraction osteogenesis traction princilple
  30.  Removal of mandibular third molars 6 months
    prior to the osteotomy allows time for the sockets
    to heal, which decreases the chance of a
    bad split.
  31.  If impacted 3rd molar is to b excracted in patient
    planed for bisagital split osteotomy then shud b
    a. At the time of surgery
    b. 1 month prior to surgery
    c. 6 month prior surgery
    D after surgery
  32.  In mandubular block needle targeted toward.
    A.coronoid notch.
    B.sigmoid notch.
    C.neck of mandible.
  33.  Most potent topical LA is
  34.  L.a is deposited in infr alveolar nerve block near
    A) coronoid notch
    B) sigmoid notch
    C) groove of mandibular neck
    D) lingual (i too gues is mis speled for lingula)
  35.  Which of these is pierced during post supr
    alveolar n. Block
    m. Pterigoid
    l. Pterigoid
  36.  Most potent topical anaesthetic???
  37.  Non ulcerated, pigmentated fast growing growth
    in maxilla alveolar ridge of a childa.
    oral melanotic macule
    c.melanotic neuroectodermal tumor
    d.congential epulis
  38.  how to diagnose tongue thrusting
    Checking digit of patient
    Paper near nostrils
    Hold the lower lip tightly and ask him to drink
    Place paper between lips
  39.  Lower facial height is decreased in all except
    anterior open bite
    class 1 div 2
    deep bite
    growing children
  40.  Ricketts analysis......
    A. Lower lip shud lie on plane.
    B. 1mm behind plane.
    C. 2mm behind plane.
    D. 1mm in front of plane..
  41.  Self correcting anomaly at 9 yrs except
    Ugly duckling,
    Lower ant crowding,
    Open bite,
    End on molar relation
  42.  Ant posterior curvature of occlusal plane which
    seems as linear curve
    Curve of wilson
    Curve of spee
    Curve of monsoon
    Curve of bonwil
  43.  the nasolabial angle formed by...
    A. Line from nasion to pogonian with base of nose
    b.base of nose and upper lip.
    C. .........
    D. Anb with base of nose
  44.  Filler in alginate is
    Potassium alginate,
    Calcium sulphate,
    Diatomaceous earth ,
    Sodium phosphate
  45.  In cr-co base metal alloy wat is d function of
    A. Responsible for surface irregularities
    b. Increases corrosion n tarnish resistance
    c. ?
    D. ?
  46.  In mechanical trituration of amalgam, wat is
    adversely affected?
    A. Hardness of d filling
    b. Tarnish resistance
    c. Final gloss of filling
    d. Working time
  47.  w/p ratio of type iv dental stone:
    a..6 to .7
    b..4 to .5
    c..22 to .24
    d.28 to .30
  48.  What is used for d measurement of d setting
    A. Viket's needle test
    b. Vicker's test
    c. Brinell test
    d. Cold bend test
  49.  For complete wetting ,angle shud bea.
    min in hard tissues
    b.max in both dentin n enamel
    c.min in dentin n max in enamel
    d.min in enamel n max in dentin
  50.  According to scientists....
    a. Head and tail both are resistant to dissolution
    b)Head and tail both are not resistant to dissolution
    c)Head is more resistant to desolution
    d)Tail is more resistant to desolution
  51.  True about Tome’s fibers
    A. Cytoplasmic extensionso f dentinl tubules,
    B. Periodntl fib xtendng into root dentine.
    C. collagen fibers in dentine
    D. Periodontal fibers ending into root cementum
  52.  Least sensitiv to pain
    buccal mucosa
  53.  water content in enamela.
    2 to 3 %
    b.6 to 7%
    c.10 to 12%
    d. 20 to 25 %
  54.  Enamel lamellaea.
    Enamel molecules uniformly arranged
    b.enamel rod from enamel to dentin
    c.dentinal tubules from dentin to enamel
    d. Outer elevation on enamel surface,
  55.  Fovea palatine on both sides of midline shows
    a.opening of minor salivary gland ducts
    b.groove/impression on greater palatine area
    C.crypts f tosils
  56.  Which of d following is hypotonic...
    Normal saline
    Ringer lactate
    5% dextrose
  57.  a 60 yr old patient who was admitted to hospital
    has a sudden cardiorespiratory arrest, what is the
    emergency method followed to maintain airway
    and oxygenation.. i think this was the exat language.
    c)nasai intubation
    d)oral intubation
  58.  Mask intubation is difficult in all except
    Full set of teeth
    Habit of snoring
    Old age
  59.  A 30yr old male road traffic accident a patient
    developed shock, which solution shud b gvn
    a. Joule's soln
    b. Ringer lactate soln
    c. LMW dextran
    d. Normal saline
  60.  In bell's palsy, wich one of the duct is affected
  61.  2010 ACLS guideline does not include
    A.atropine for asystole
    B.ask for help for witnessed or nonwitness case
    C.use defibrillator how much maximum energy
    D.cardiac massage to be done after defibrillation
    without waitin to assess rhythm
  62.  Hypertonic solutions are used in all except.
    b.brain injury patient
    c.prolonged bowel surgery
    d.type 4 shock
  63.  Shy Dragor Syndrome is
    a. Vasovagal syncope
    b. Ortho hypotension
    c. Intestinal polyps
    d. Adrenal suppression shock
  64.  delayed prolonged effect after injury d/ta.
    histamin release n endothelial retraction
    b.interlukin 1 n endothelial retraction
    D.newly formed blood vessesls
  65.  Maximum dose articaine dose that can be given
    a. 1.3 mg/kg
    b. 5.4 mg?Kg
    c. 6mg/kg
    d. 7mg/kg
    Ans is D. 7mg/kg
  66.  adrenal suppression caused by which
    anaesthetic? 1.thiopentone.
  67.  G.A having an antiemetic effect
    a. Propofol
    b. Etomidate
    c. Ketamine
    d. Thiopentone
  68.  Ionotropic agent correct is
    a. Adrenaline increses renal perfusion. ..
    B. Dobutamine cause peripheral vasoconstriction
    c.dopamine causes increase blood flow
    D.digoxin causes hepatic vasodilation
  69.  endotoxin of which gram negative bacteria
    doesnt participate in natural defence mechanism
    a. E.coli
    b. Salmonella
    c. V. Cholera
    d. Klebsiella
  70.  organism associated wid pyrexia of unknown
    a-salmonella type
    b-salmonella paratype
    d-mycobacterium tuberculosis
  71. breast milk contains which essentaial fatty acid-
    Lenoloic acid
    Palmitic acid
    Docosahexanoic acid
  72. Important source of cholesterol is-
    Coconut oil,
    Hydrogenated fat,
  73. Wich is nt monosacharide?
  74. Which of the following is not a general
    component of body
    blood plasma
    peritoneal fluid
  75. The heat required to evaporate the vapor on
    going of water is( framed from kar 99- again from
    dentest basics)
    a. Latent heat of fusion
    b. Latent heat of vapourisation
    c. Latent heat of sublimation
    d. Melting temperature
  76. permanent dipole is seen ina.
    b.liquid nitrogen
  77. sharp stabbing pain from anterior teeth
    conducted to brain by
    A delta fibres ,
    C fibres
  78. muscle stretch conducted by
    Myelinated fibres
    Gamma fibres
    C fibres ,
    A delta fibres
  79. Oxygen free radicals in lysosome is released by
    NADPH oxidase
    Superoxide dismutase
  80. Saliva after undergoing changes in the duct is...
    A) Isotonic
    c) hypertonic sometimes
    D) hypertonic sometimes
  81. Which of d following buffer has least effect in
    stimulated saliva?
    A)amino acid
    Membrane of peripheral nv is
    a- relatively permeable to k+
    b- immpermeable to k+
    c- relatively permeable to Na+
    d- relatively permeable to Cl-
  83. On cut blood on both ends ear lobe lower lip
    angle of mouth , angle of jaw
  84. Lymphatics not draing tongue
    posterior vesel
    central vesl
    marginal vesl
    ventral vesl
  85. Tendons of gracilis, semitendinous n sartorius dat
    Attach on tibia form pes anserinus.. Similar
    structure is seen in
    Submandi gland
  86. Muscle responsible for lateral movement of
    Medial and lateral pterygoid
    Masseter and lateral pterygoid
    Masseter & Medial pterygoid
  87. Infection from dangerous are of face travel to
    cavernous sinus thrombosis by
    Ptyigoid venous plexus
  88. Tuft cells are receptors seen on ?( aims nov
    a) TMJ
    b) Lining of max sinus
    c) Cell rich zone
    d) Excretory duct of salivary gland
    Ans is D - Excretory duct of salivary gland
    Tencate’s Oral Histology 5th ed Pg No 510
  89. Deviation of tongue to left nerve affected
  90. Which of these is not a part of ethmoid bone
    A) Agger nasi
    B) Inferior turbinate
    C) Uncinate process
    D) Cribriform plate or crista gali
  91. epidural hematoma occurs due to –
    Middle meningeal artery,
    Anterior cerebral artery
    Vertebral artery
    Basilar artery
  92. opening of mouth directed by :
    lateral pterygoid
    medial pterygoid

If you are really benefited , Please share it with your friends on Facebook by clicking Fshare button. Follow us on facebook : http://www.facebook.com/rxdentistry


1. In prolonged starvation the main energy sourceof brain isa) Glucoseb) Ketone bodies<--c) Fructosed) Fatty acids

2. Multiple myeloma has been seen commonly after exposure toa) Radioactive isotopes<--b) goldc) asbestosd) organic dyes
3. Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paperstrip more visible isa) Eosin stainb) Haemotoxin stainc) Ninhydrin stain<--d) Blue stain

4. Which of these is NOT an oncogenic virus?a) Human papillomavirusb) Cytomegalovirus<--c) Epstein-Barr virusd) Hepatitis B virus

5. Learning disability is otherwise called asa) Infantile psychosisb) Minimal brain dysfuntionc) Childhood schizophreniad) Attention deficit disorder<--

6. Ideal thickness of a free gingival graft obtainedfrom the palate isa) 0.5-1 mmb) 1-1.5 mm<--c) 1.5-2.0 mmd) 2.0-2.5 mm

7. Removal of parathyroid gland produces the following changes EXCEPTa) Decline plasma calcium levelb) Decrease in plasma phosphate level<--c) Neuromuscular hyperexcitabilityd) Hypocalcemictetany

8. Trench mouth is caused bya) Fusiform bacillusb) Borelli Vincentic) Both (a) and (b)<--d) None of the above

9. Patients with severe allergic reactions such asanaphylaxis require immediate therapy witha) glucocorticoidsb) antihistaminesc) epinephrine<--d) morphine

10.A nasal antrostomy following Caldwell-Luc procedure is createda) Above the inferior turbinateb) Beneath the superior turbinatec) Above the superior turbinated) Beneath the inferior turbinate<--

11. Main objective of increasing the focal spot to filmdistance in paralleling technique is toa) Reduce the radiation dosage onlyb) Reduce the image magnification & increase sharpness and resolution<--c) Reduce the image magnification & reduce sharpness and resolutiond) Reduce the magnification and distortion ....ans can be d also

12. The granulomatous tissue that is responsible fordestruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known asa) Pannus.<--b) Pulse granuloma.c) Baker's cyst.d) Immune granuloma.

13. Pulp vitality test in a tooth with primary periodontal lesion will reveal pulp to bea) Vital<--b) Non-vitalc) May be vital or non-vitald) None of the above

14. Multiple osteomas, odontomas, supernumeraryteeth and impacted teeth are seen ina) McCune-Albright syndromeb) Mafabraud's syndromec) Gardner syndrome<--d) Down's syndrome

15.Who gave the term ECC (Early Childhood Caries)?a) Davies<--b) Mossc) Winterd) Dilley

16. Sjogren's Syndrome affectsa) exocrine glands<--b) paracrine glandsc) endocrine glandsd) autocrine glands


17. The mineral having sparing action on vitamin Ea) Chromiumb) Ironc) Iodined) Selenium<--

18. The urine sample of a patient has been sent tothe laboratory to look for Leptospira.The specimen is to be screened by use of thea) Scanning microscopeb) Inverted microscopec) Dark ground microscope<--d)Electron microscope

19. The second heart sound is produced due toa) Closure of semilunar valves<--b) Closure of atrio-ventricular valvesc) Ventricular fillingd) Opening of semilunar valves

20. Activation of which one of the following coagulation factor is not essential for hemostasisa) XII<--b) XIc) IXd) X

21. Which one of the following is indicative of cardiac tamponade?a) Pulsusparadoxus<--b) Wide pulse pressurec) Kussmaul's signd) Forceful apical impulse

22. Glossopharyngeal nerve passes througha) Foramen ovaleb) Jugular foramen<--c) Foramen rotundumd) Foramen spinosum

23. The most reliable index for the determining thepresence of active periodontal disease isa) halitosisb) bleeding on probing<--c)pocket formationd) gingival recession

24. Following are the changes during accommodation EXCEPTa) Constriction of pupilb) Dilatation of pupil<--c) Convergence of eye balld) Increase in the anterior curvature of lensans.. can be c also25. In Tarnow's technique, the method described fordenuded surface isa) semilunarcoranally repositioned flap<--b) split thickness coronally repositioned flapc) free soft tissue autograftd) subepithelial connective flap

26. The choice of retention for lower incisors following orthodontic correction isa) Clip-on retainerb) Spring retainerc) Tooth Positionerd) Bonded canine to canine retainer<--

27. Ligand for peroxisome proliferation activating receptor (PPAR) receptors, a group of nuclear hormone receptors that are involved in the regulation of genes related to glucose and lipid metabolism isa) repaglinideb) voglibosec) exanatided) rosiglitazone<--

28. The antibacterial substance present in tears which acts by splitting Cell wall components isa) Penicillinb) Lysozyme<--c) Beta lysined) Lactoperoxidase

29. Beginning of adolescent growth in boys is witha) pubic hair growth.b) feminine fat distribution.<--c) facial hair on chin and lip.d) facial hair on upper lip only.

30. Which of the following muscle is not a derivative of second pharyngeal arch?a) Buccinator muscleb) Stapediusc) Platysmad) Anterior belly of digastric<--

31. Apical third root fracture in a vital tooth aretreated bya) Pulpotomyb) Periapical surgery and removal of the fragmentc) Relieve from occlusion and observe<--d) Pulpectomy

32. Critical pH of saliva below this pH.die inorganic material of the tooth may dissolve in caries. The critical pH value isa) 6.5b) 5.5<--c) 7.5d)6.0

33. Which one of the following is not a feature of long standing mouth breathing habita) Adenoid faciesb) Large nose<--c) Upper anterior labial gingivitisd) Frequent occurrence of tonsillitis, allergic rhinitis and otitis media

34. The danger of transmitting infections to the dental team or to the other patient particularly has athreat of:a) Acquired immune deficiency svndrome (AIDS)b) Hepatitis-Bc) Tuberculosisd)All of the above<--

35. In root canal treatment, the canal orifices are located bya) Endodontic excavatorb) DG-16 Endodontic explorer<--c) C+filed) H-file

36. The retromolar pad must be covered by the denture base because it aids ina) Retention onlyb) Retention and support<--c) Stability onlyd) Stability and Support

37. The most successful materials for soft liner applications have beena) Impression plasterb) Silicone rubbers<--c) Waxesd) Irreversible hydrocolloids

38. Carotid atheromas may appear radiographicallyas:a) Nodular radio-opaque massb) Double vertical radio-opaque lines within the neckc) Both of the above<--d) None of the above

39. The commonly used root canal irrigant, whichwas used for irrigation wounds during world warI by Dakin isa) Salineb) Hydrogen Peroxidec) Buffered sodium hypochlorite<--d) Distilled water

40. The amino acid required for the sysnthesis ofhaem isa) Glutamineb) Glutamic acidc) Glycine<--d) Lysine

41. The tissue and pus aspirate is to be collected fordiagnosis of Gas gangrene. It should idealh Mtransported usinga) Buffered Glycerol salineb) Todd - Hewitt brothc) Robertson's Cooked Meat Medium<--d) Hanks Balanced salt solution

42. Following antimicrobials are termed as type Icalcimimetics that mimic the stimulatory effectof calcium on the calcium sensing receptor toinhibit PTH secretion by the parathyroid glandEXCEPTa) Streptomycinb) Hamycin<--c) neomycind) Gentamicin

43. Battle sign in head injury indicates fracture ofa) Orbital plateb) Base of skull<--c) Maxillad) Mandible

44. In a DNA molecule adenine always forms a link age witha) Guanineb) Cytosinec) Thymine<--d) Uracil

45. This condition is due to a defect in the normalkeratinization of the oral mucosaa) Erythema Multiformeb) White Sponge Nevus<--c) IncontinentiaPigmentid) Systemic Sclerosis

46. The classic triad of single or multiple areas of'punched-out' bone destruction in the skull, unilateral or bilateral exopthalmus and diabetes insipidus is seen ina) Letterer-Siwe diseaseb) Eosinophilic granulomac) Langerhans cell histiocytosisd) Hand-Schuller-Christian disease<--

47. The lactobacillus count test to assess caries activity was given bya) Synderb) Jayc) Hadley<--d) Edelstein

48. What are the cells that produce PGE2 in the Periodontium?a) Macrophagesb) Fibroblastsc) Neutrophilsd) a and b<--

49. Which of the following statement is FALSE?a) The term 'pear shaped' pad was coined by Craddockb) Mucosa overlying pear shaped pad is stippledc) Retromolar pad lies posterior to pear shaped padd) Mucosa overlying pear shaped pad is not stippled<--

50. The most frequent direction in which the articular disc gets displaced isa) Anterior and lateral direction.b) Posterior and lateral direction.c) Anterior and medial direction.<--d) Posterior and medial direction.

51. Maxillary sinus is lined by which type of epitheliuma) Pseudostratified, ciliated columnar mucus secreting epithelium<--b) Pseudostratified, ciliated columnar serous secreting epitheliumc) Stratified, ciliated columnar mucus secreting epitheliumd) Stratified, ciliated cuboidal serous secreting epithelium

52. Implantation cyst i s formed due toa) Persistence of epithelial cells after wound healing<--b) Excessive wound contractionc) Brustingopen of woundd) All of the above

53. Serum alkaline phosphatase level is elevated ina) Paget's disease<--b) Infantile cortical hyperostosisc) Cleidocranial dysplasiad) Pierre "Robin Syndrome

54. In a patient with unerupted and impacted maxillary canine the following radiographic techniqueswill be ideal for localizationa) IOPA and PNS viewb) Maxillary anterior occlusal view and IOPA<--c) Bitewing and occlusal viewd) IOPA and occlusal view

55. A 25 year old male patient complains of missing27 with no distal abutment and prefers a fixedform of prosthetic treatment. An abutment thatis present only at one end of the edentulous spanis calleda) Cantilever abutment<--b) Pier abutmentc) Mesially tilted abutmentd) Distally tilted abutment

56. Criterion to distinguish between Miller class IIand III recession isa) Interdental bone<--b) Malpositioning of the toothc) Extension of recessiond) Consistency of gingival

57. The mandibular labial frenum is a fibrous bandthat can be influenced bya) incisivusb) orbicularisorisc) caninus and incisivusd) incisivus and orbicularis oris<--

58. Which of the following is not a mouth temperature waxa) Adaptolb) Korrecta type 1<--c) HL Physiologic pasted) Iowa wax

59. A Cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 year old child hasbeen sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of a capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose isa) India ink preparation<--b) Methanamine silver stainc) Ziehl-Neelsen staind) Phyte - ferraco stain

60. The hard palate is covered bya) Non-keratinized mucosab) Keratinized mucosac) Orthokeratinised mucosa<--d) Para keratinized mucosa

61. Mesiolingual developmental groove is seen ina) Mandibular first premolar<--b) Mandibular second premolarc) Maxillary first premolard) Maxillary second premolar

_62. Adjunctive orthodontics refers toa) corrective orthodontics in mild to moderate dental-skeletal disharmonyb) mild-moderate orthodontic corrections in patients with periodontal and/or restorative needs<--c) moderate - severe malocclusions which re-quires a combination of orthodontics and orthognathic surgeryd) Orthodontics in patients with TMJ dysfunction

63. The medial confluence of stress lines on themedial surface of the ramus that represents the arcial growth of surface of the mandible is known asa) XiPointb) PmPointc) Mepointd) Eva point<--

64. Normal intrapulp pressure isa) 10mm Hg<--b) 5mm Hgc) 7mm Hgd) 15mmHg

65. The Lorothidol added in Non Eugenol paste hasthe function ofa) Bacteriostaticb) Fungicide<--c) Acceleratord) Preservative

66. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) gene cluster is responsible fora) Dental Cariesb) Periodontal diseases<--c) Supernumerary teethd) Peg laterals

67. The sugar implicated in the aetiology of dental caries isa) Glucoseb) Fructosec) Maltosed) Sucrose<--

68. The most common site of dentin hypersensitivity isa) Incisalb) Cervical<--c) Proximald) Occlusal

69. Andreason Appliance is also known asa) Activator<--b) Bionatorc) Oral Screend) Lip Bumper

70. Dentist participating in the delta dental planerspaid 90th percentile where asnon participatingdentists are paida) 15th Percentileb) 30th percentilec) 100th percentiled) 50th percentile<--

71. A 25 year old male comes with a complaint ofthrobbing pain in the upper part of the cheek or entire side of face, heavy feeling in the face, which exacerbates on bending down and with associated pyrexia. The most probable diagnosis isa) Acute dento alveolar abscess in relation to upper first molarb) Irreversible pulpitis in relation to upper 2nd molarc) Acute maxillary sinusitis<--d) Acute periodontal abscess in relation to upper 1 st molar.

72. Which of the following causes exogenous pigmentationa) haemoglobinb) chromogenic bacteria<--c) melanind) Hemosiderin

73. Following factors delay the wound healing EXCEPTa) Vitamin C deficiencyb) Infectionc) Anemiad) Immobilization<--

74. Maxillary sinus is described as a four sided pyramid containing base, apex, roof and floor. The apex of maxillary sinus extendsa)Laterally into zygomatic process of maxilla<--b) Medially into zygomatic process of maxillac) Laterally into lateral nasal walld) Superiorly into floor of orbit

75. An ideal location to attach a sprue for a posterior cast restoration isa) Central fossab) Cusp tips<--c) Marginal ridged) Contact point

76. In a pericoronalabcess related to distoangularimpacted third molar, the infection may spread toa) Sub masseteric space<--b) Buccal spacec) Sublingual spaced) Sub mental space

77. To view the zygomatic arches, the following projection is very commonly used,a) Lateral cephalometric projectionb) Lateral oblique view of mandiblec) Underexposed submentovertex view<--d) Overexposed submentovertex view

_________________78. The process of recesses formation in maxillary sinus is most frequently seen witha) Zygomatic processb) Frontal processc) Alveolar process<--d) Palatine process

79. The cells of the enamel organ which differentiate into future ameloblasts area) Cells of inner enamel epithelium<--b) Cells of outer enamel epitheliumc) Cells of stellate reticulumd) Cells of stratum intermedium

80. In adults seeking orthodontic treatment with esthetic applications as the following may b choicesEXCEPTa) Lingual orthodorrb) ceramic bracketsc) clear aligner the:d) titanium brackets<--

81. Child of an over protective indulgentmother showsa) Shy, Submissive behaviour<--b) Evasive and dawdling behaviourc) Demanding and aggressive behaviourd) Stoic behaviour

82. Following is not a mucogingival surgery to increase zone of attached gingivaa) gingivalautograftb) connective tissue graftc) laterally displaced flap<--d) apically displaced flapAll are correct

83. Soil, Seed and Sower is one of the principles of health education. In this principle, seed is:a) Mind of the participant.b) Health educator.c) Health education.<--d) Transmitting media.

84. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of metal used for metal ceramic restoration range froma) 11.5-12.5xl0-6/0Cb) 10.5-11.5xl0-6/0Cc) 13.5-14.5xl0-6/0C<--d) 16.5-17.5xl0-6/0C

85. Following are the branches of external carotid artery EXCEPTa) Facial arteryb) Lingual arteryc) Occipital arteryd) Middle meningeal artery<--

86. Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPTa) Ethambutolb) Ethylene glycolc) Ciprofloxacin<--d) Tetracycline

87. A salivary gland tumour which histologically shows a double layer of epithelial cells based on a reactive lymphoid stroma isa) Pleomorphic adenomab) Mucoepidermoid carcinomac) Acinic cell tumourd) Warthin tumour<--

88. The feature of lower motor neuron lesion isa) Hypertoniab) Hyperactive stretch reflexc) Muscular atrophy<--d) Abnormal plantar extensor reflex (Babinski's sign)

89. During casting procedures creation of a "Hot-spot" meansa) The presence of reservoir resulting in delayed solidification of metal.b) Sprue former is attached at right angle creating a localized lingering of molten metal after casting has solidified.<--c) The length of Sprue is too long resulting in ready flow of molten metal.d) Use of too high temperature resulting in localized disintegration of metal.

90. The strength of association between suspectedcause and effect in a cohort study is measured by:a) Attributable riskb) Odds ratioc) Biological riskd) Relative risk<--

91. What is incorporated in porcelain during firinga) Argonb) Helium<--c) Hydrogend) Oxygen

92. Bruxism is___________during sleepa) walkingb) enuresisc) grinding of teeth<--d) apneic episodes

93. The protein found in the amyloid deposits in senile systemic amyloidosis isa) AL proteinb) a2microglobulinc) a-amyloid proteind)Transthyretin<--


94. According to Weine's classification of root canal configuration, a single canal from pulp chamber to apex can bea) Type IVb) Type IIc) Type IIId) Type I<--

95. Which radiographic technique is employed tocorrectly determine the buccal or palatal placement of impacted maxillary canine?a) SLOB or Clark's Rule<--b) Paralleling techniquec) Bisecting angle techniqued) Right angle technique

96. Functional disorders of salivary glands are bestimaged usinga) Intraoral and extraoral radiographsb) Scintigraphy and sialography<--c) Computed tomographyd) MRI

97. The orthodontic diagnosis focuses ona) full smile.b) emotional smile.c) social smile.<--d) gummy smile only.

98. Following the premature loss of a deciduoustooth, space closurea) Occurs predominantly from the anterior in the maxillary arch and predominantly from the posterior in the mandibular archb) Is more rapid 6 months after the loss of the toothc) Occurs more rapidly in the maxillary arch than in the mandibular arch<--d) Inversely proportional to the time the deciduous tooth has been missing

99. The technique used for defluoridation is __________technique.a) Knutson'sb) Brudevold'sc) Nalgonda<--d) Nalanda

100. The embrasure areas in the following areas are continuousa) Labial and Lingual<--b) Lingual and Occlusalc) Incisal and Occlusald) Labial and Occlusal

101. Identify the material used in maxillo-facial prosthesis:a) Polyurethane elastomers<--b) Polycarbonatec) Autopolymerizing acrylic resind) Polyvinyl chloride

102. Glass ionomer cement is used as a barrier overguttapercha filling before bleaching an endodontically treated discolored tootha) To prevent bleaching agent from dissolving the guttapercha<b) To prevent percolation of the bleaching agent into the apical area<--c) To prevent contamination of bleaching agentd) To prevent discoloration of tooth from obturating material.

103. During an attempted extraction of upper posterior teeth, to determine the position of the roots displaced intoantrum, ideal radiograph would be,a) Bitewing radiography of maxillary posteriorsb) IOPA of mandibular posterior teethc) Upper oblique occlusal radiograph<--d) Lateral oblique view of mandibular posteriors

104. Colour code used for segregation of infected human anatomical waste isa) Yellow<--b) Redc) Blackd) Green

105. All the following cranial nerves transmit taste sensation to the brain EXCEPTa) facial nerveb glossopharyngeal nervec) vagus nerved) hypoglossal nerve<--

106. Pigmentation of the permanent teeth may developif tetracyclines are given between the ages ofa) 5 and 7yearsb) 0.2 and 5 years<--c)6 and 10 yearsd) 10 and 12years

107. Normal cerebrospinal fluid glucose levels are seen in:a) Pyogenic meningitisb) Viral meningitis<--c) Fungal meningitisd) Tuberculous meningitis

108. The cement filling material which has the most severe injurious effect on pulp isa) Copper cementb)Zinc oxyphoshphate cementc) Silicate cement<--d) Calcium hydroxide

109. Universally used method of behavior manage ment in pediatric dentistry for both cooperative and uncooperative children isa) Voice controlb) Behaviour shapingc) Implosion Therapyd) Communication<--

110. Chronic hyper plastic pulpits is a type ofa) Acute irreversible pulpitsb) Chronic irreversible pulpits<--c) Acute reversible Pulpitsd) Chronic reversible pulpits

111. Hardness of fully mineralized cementum isa) Less than dentin<--b) more than dentinc) Equal dentind) none of the above

112. Fibroma combined with glandular tissue isa) Neurofibromab) Fibroadenoma<--c) Fibrolipomad) Fibromyoma

113. When a dentist says " I cannot fix your teeth ifyou do not open your mouth wide", he is employinga) Problem ownership<--b) Voice controlc) Toleranced) Flexibility

114. The following drugs induces gingival enlargement EXCEPTa) Dilantin sodiumb) Cyclosporinec) Nifidipined) Amoxycillin<--

115. The Alma-Ata declaration on 'primary health care' was made in the year:a) 1980b) 1978<--c) 1982d) 1977

116. Pier abutment is aa) Lone standing abutment<--b) Free end abutmentc) Mesially tilted abutmentd) Distally tilted abutment

117. The volumetric shrinkage exhibited by heat polymerized denture resin polymerized mass isa) 0.07 %b) 0.7 %c) 7%<--d) 70%some ppl r sayind dat in heat cure its 0.7%118. Intra Oral pleomorphicadenoma usually occursina) Buccal mucosab) Upper lipc) Floor of the mouthd) Palate<--

119. Localisation of parathyroids in hyperparathyroidism is done best witha) X ray neckb) USG neckc) I 131 scand) Technetium 99 labelled sestamibi scan<--

120. Chemical cauterization for odontogenickeratocyst is done bya) 10%Ethanolb) Hydrogen peroxidec) Carnoys solution<--d) 10% Formalin

121. Commonest tumour of parotid salivary gland isa) Pleomorphic adenoma<--b) Warthintumorc) Acinic cell carcinomad) Mucoepiderrrioid carcinoma

122.Demineralisation of enamel occurs in the pH range ofa) 4.0 to 4.5b) 5.0 to 5.5<--c) 6.0 to 6.5d) 7.0 to 7.5

123. As a general rule in borderline crowding cases of a broad facial typea) an expansion treatment should be carried out.<--b) extraction therapy should be considered.c) no treatment required.d) only surgical treatment required.

124. The range of level of fluoride secreted by the glands into the mouth isa) 0.004-0.005 <--snip-->b) 0.006-0.007 <--snip-->c) 0.007-0.05 <--snip--><--d) 0.007-0.08 <--snip-->

125. The assessment or measurement of the quality of care and the implementation of any necessary changes to either maintain or improve the quality of care rendered isa) Quality Assessment<--b) Quality Assurancec) Quality Planningd) Guidelines

126. Rough surface of elastomeric Impression results from:a) Inadequate mixingb) Air bubblesc) Too rapid polymerizationd) Incomplete polymerization caused by premature removal from mouth<--

127. A 13 year old boy presents with a large mixedlytic and blastic mass in the metaphyseal region of the lower end of femur. The most likely diagnosis isa) Ewing's sarcomab) Osteosarcoma<--c) Chondrosarcomad) Giant cell tumour

128. Direct pulp capping has a favourable prognosis if the exposure is arounda) 1 mm<--b) 1.5 mmc) 0.5 mmd) 2 mm

129. Oroantral fistula is most commonly caused bythe manipulation of maxillarya) Canineb) First molar<--c) Second molard) First premolar

130. Protein making up the bulk of keratohyaline granules in stratum granulosum of keratinized epithelium isa) Involucrinb) Vinculinc) Filaggrin<--d) Nectin

131. Vertical malocclusions includea) lateral deep bite.b) complex deep bite.c) gingivally supported deep bite.<--d) gingivally supported open bite.

132. Neural tube formation occurs ona)18 to 23 days post fertilization and is the second stage of craniofacial development<--b) 28 to 38 days post fertilization and is the third stage of craniofacial developmentc) 42 to 55 days post fertilization and is the fourth stage of craniofacial developmentd) 17th day post fertilization and is the first stage of craniofacial development

133. Approximate length of junctional epithelium isa) One mm<--b) Two mmc) Three mmd) Four mm

134. Ameloblastic cells are ectodermal in origin whichlay downa) Enamel<--b) Dentinec) Cementd) Pulp cavity

135. A patient with hereditary fructose intolerance isdeficient in which of the follwing enzymes?a) Aldolase B<--b) Fructokinasec) Triokinased) All of above

136. An individual has a fasting blood glucose concentration of 115 mg/dL on three occasions. Whatis your conclusion?a) He is normalb) He is diabeticc) He has impaired glucose tolerance<--d) He needs further evaluation by other bio-chemical tests

137. Small packets of acetylcholine released randomlyfrom the nerve cell membrane at rest producesa) End plate potentialb) Miniature end plate potential<--c) Action potentiald) Inhibitory post synaptic potential

138. Secondary haemorrhage occours withina) 0-24 hrsb) 48-72 hrsc) 1-2 wks<--d) During surgery

139. Enlargement of crown at the expense of root iscalleda) Microdontiab) Dens evaginatusc) Taurodontism<--d) Dens invaginatus

140. The free gingival graft is placed ona) on the periosteum<--b) bonec) gingivad) periodontal pocket

141. Tissue conditioning materials area) Elastomersb) Elastopolymers<--c) Polymersd) Impression plaster

142. Prevalence of diseases isa) Rateb) Ratioc) Proportion<--d) Deviation

143. According ToMisch Bone Density Classification D2 Isa) > 1250 HOUNSFIELD UNITSb)350 - 850 HOUNSFIELD UNITSc) 850 - 1250 HOUNSFIELD UNITS<--d) 150-350 HOUNSFIELD UNITS

144. Edge of tuberculous ulcer isa) Slopingb) Undermined<--c) Punched outd) Everted

145. A surgical obturator has to be inserteda) One day prior to the surgeryb) On the day of the surgery<--c) 14 days after the surgeryd) 30 days after the surgery

146. Specificity can be calculated asa) True positive_________________________True positive + False Negativeb) True positive________________________True positive + False positivec) False positive________________________True positive + True Negatived) True Negative________________________ <--True Negative + False positive

147. The optimum crown root ratio isa) 3:2b) 2:3<--c) 1:2d) 2:1

148. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of allosteric enzymes?a) They are multienzyme complexesb) Follow Michaelis-Mentem kinetics<--c) Presence of ModulgidrMted) Give sigmoid shaped curve

149. The efficacy of the moist-heat sterilization technique commonly used to sterilize laboratory ware and Culture media is tested by usinga) Clostridium tetani sporesb) T-Even-Bacteriophagesc) Bacillus stearothermophilus spores<--d) Browne's tubes

150. Odontalgia that is occasionally typical in hypertensive patients is a result ofa) Headache radiating to the teeth.b) Nervous tension and worry.c) Hyperaemia of pulp resulting from increased blood pressure.<--d) Abnormal stimulation of the sympathetic nerve system.

For Questions 151-154

A 20yr old patient reports with multiple swellings of the jaws. Clinical examination reveals multiple hard swellings involving the jaws and intra orally several missing teeth are noticed. Panoramic radiograph reveals multiple radio opaque lesions in the maxilla and the mandible with multiple impacted teeth and supernumerary teeth, indicative of Gardeners' syndrome.

151. The above mentioned condition isa) Inherited autosomal dominant disease<--b) Autosomal recessive disorderc) X-linked diseased) A syndrome of unknown cause.

152. One of the following is also a manifestation in the above mentioned condition.a) Cafe-au-lait pigmentation of the skinb) Multiple epidermoid or sebaceous cyst of the skin<--c) Basal cell carcinoma of the skind) Perioral dermatitis.

153. One of the following manifestations in Gardener's syndrome has a risk of malignant transformation.a) Multiple polyposis of large intestine<--b) Osteomas of the jawsc) Desmoids tumors of the skind) Epidermal and trichilemmal cysts.

154. Multiple impacted teeth as seen in Gardner's syndrome may also is seen in one of the following.a) Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome<--b) Hereditary intestinal polyposisc) Cowden's syndromed) Rubinstein- Taybi syndrome


For Questions 155 - 157

A10 yr old child comes to you with exarticulaton of 11.

155. This condition is called asa) Avulsion<--b) Intrusionc) Fracture with enemasd) Dilaceration

156. Treatment of choice for the above condition isa) Extractionb) Replantation<--c) Re-vascularisationd) Composite Restoration

157. Choice of transport medium isa) Patients Bloodb) Hot Waterc) Milk<--d) None of the above

For Questions 158 - 161An 18yr old male patient reported with chief complaint of pain and swelling in the right lower jaw and mild difficulty in opening mouth since one week. A general examination revealed fever and increased pulse rate.

158. Intra-oral examination showed signs of inflammation around the gingiva of partially impacted third molar, tender on palpation with opposing tooth impinging. The most likely diagnosis isa) Necrotising ulcerative gingivitisb) Localised aggressive periodontitisc) Acute herpetic gingivostomatitisd) Pericoronitis<--

159. What is the microbial etiology of this condition is?a) Klebsiellab) E Colic) Streptococci and anaerobic bacteria<--d) Actinomycosis

160. What would be the ideal management of this case?a) Antibiotics and Analgesics.b) Removal of partially impacted lower molar immediately.c) Irrigation, antibiotics and analgesics.<--d) Hospitilisation, Irrigation, antibiotics and analgesics and immediate removal of opposing tooth.

161. The ideal surgical management of this condition once the signs and symptoms subside would bea) Operculectomy.b) Delaying the removal of teeth to next episode.c) Removal of tooth under local anaesthesia.<--d) No treatment.

For Questions 162 - 164A 30 year old male patient reports with the swelling at the angle of the mandible with a duration of 6 months. Radiograph showed an impacted third molar with a pericoronal radiolucency

162. Protein content of aspirated fluid was greater than 4.0 gms per 100 ml. The lesion is likely to bea) Odontogenickeratocystb) Dentigerous cyst<--c) Traumatic bone cystd) Stafne's bone cyst

163. Appropriate treatment option for this lesion isa) Enucleation<--b) Marginal mandibulectomyc) Segmental resectiond) Hemimandibulectomy

164. The most likely tumor to develop from this lesion isa) Ossifying fibromab) Ameloblastoma<--c) Squamous cell carcinomad) Central giant cell granuloma

For Questions 165 - 167A 40-year-old male patient reported to the restorative dentist with the chief complaint of missing back teeth in the upper jaw, and desired replacement of the same. On clinical examination revealed missing 14,15,16,17,18,24,25,26,27& 28.

165. What is the Kennedy's classification for the given clinical scenarioa) Class IIb) Class IIIc) Class VId) Class I<--

166. Special design feature to be included in the above given clinical situation isa) Broad occlusal tableb) Minimal extension of denture basec) Indirect retainer<--d) Tube teeth.

167. One of the special impression methods to be employed for class-I situation isa) Closed mouth impression techniqueb) Open mouth techniquec) Corrected cast technique<--d) Mucocompressive technique

For Questions 168 - 170A young female patient reports to the dental office with complaint of small gaps between her teeth.

168. The most feasible and economic treatment option for such a situation would bea) Porcelain veneersb) Porcelain jacket crownc) Orthodontic Tooth movementd) Diastema closure using composite<--

169. Shade selection for such a treatment should be carried out under thea) Natural day light<--b) Fluorescent lightc) After placement of rubber damd) When the teeth are dry

170. If a proper placement technique is not followed, it would result ina) Tooth sensitivity<--b) Wear of opposing teethc) Debonded restorationd) Healthy gingiva.

For Questions 171 - 173A 21 year old male healthy patient reported with a prognatic mandible, intraorally he has anterior crossbite and class III molar relationship, cephalometrically has an SNA of 78 degrees, SNB of 89 degrees.

171. What would be the treatment of choice for the adult Class III skeletal Malocclusion with a prominenta) Functional Applianceb) Fixed Orthodonticsc) Functional jaw orthopedic correctiond) Surgical Orthodontics<--

172. The presurgical orthodontic procedures involvesa) Decompensation<--b) Compensationc) Settling elasticsd) Immobilization

173. The surgical procedure of choice for correction of mandibular excessive prognathism isa) Le Fort I osteotomyb) Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy<--c) Caldwell-luc surgeryd) Ramal distraction osteogenesis

For Questions 174 - 177A twenty year old female patient comes to the clinic with discoloration of the upper right cenjral incisor .The tooth was intact and otherwise asymptomatic.

174. The most likely cause for the discoloration in this patient would bea) Pulp necrosisb) Dental fluorosisc) Internal resorption<--d) Microleakage

175. The treatment most often employed for managing discoloration in a non vital teeth isa) Microabrasionb) Walking bleach<--c) Over the counter bleachingd) Veneer

176. The common sequlae following bleaching non vital teeth area) Ankylosisb) Peridontal pathologyc) External cervical resorption<--d) Reinfection

177. Bleaching is indicated in which of the following clinical situationsa) Dentin discolorations<--b) Teeth with discolored compositesc) Tooth discoloration due to cariesd) Teeth with superficial enamel discolorations

For Questions 178 - 180A 45 year old female patient reports to the clinic with a history of pain with tooth 37. The tooth appears normal on clinical and radiographic examination except for the fact that pain occurs on biting on a hard object and then releasing the bite.

178. The most probable cause for the pain may bea) Occult cariesb) Periodontitisc) Cracked tooth<--d) Maxillary sinusitis

179 The various other means of diagnosing such a lesion include:a) Methylene blue stainingb) Tooth sloothc) Transilluminationd) All of the above<--

180. Immediate treatment of such a tooth involvesa) Stabilization with orthodontic bandb) Extractionc) Relief from occlusion<--


If you are really benefited , Please share it with your friends on Facebook by clicking Fshare button. Follow us on facebook : http://www.facebook.com/rxdentistry